CHAPTER 3

Telecommunications and Network Security

This chapter is supplemental to and coordinated with the Telecommunications and Network Security chapter in the CISSP Prep Guide. The fundamentals of telecommunications and network security are covered in Chapter 3 of the CISSP Prep Guide at a level on par with that of the CISSP Examination.

It is assumed that the reader has a basic knowledge of the material contained in Chapter 3 and has the CISSP Prep Guide available to provide background information for the advanced questions pertaining to the Telecommunications and Network Security chapter.

In the Telecommunications and Network Security areas we will discuss protocols, layers, firewalls, IP addressing, and other network concepts.

Advanced Sample Questions

  1. Which of the choices below is NOT an OSI reference model Session Layer protocol, standard, or interface?
    1. SQL
    2. RPC
    3. MIDI
    4. ASP
    5. DNA SCP
  2. Which part of the 48-bit, 12-digit hexadecimal number known as the Media Access Control (MAC) address identifies the manufacturer of the network device?
    1. The first three bytes
    2. The first two bytes
    3. The second half of the MAC address
    4. The last three bytes
  3. Which IEEE protocol defines the Spanning Tree protocol?
    1. IEEE 802.5
    2. IEEE 802.3
    3. IEEE 802.11
    4. IEEE 802.1D
  4. Which choice below is NOT one of the legal IP address ranges specified by RFC1976 and reserved by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) for non-routable private addresses?
    1. 10.0.0.0–10.255.255.255
    2. 127.0.0.0–127.0.255.255
    3. 172.16.0.0–172.31.255.255
    4. 192.168.0.0–192.168.255.255
  5. Which statement is correct about ISDN Basic Rate Interface?
    1. It offers 23 B channels and 1 D channel.
    2. It offers 2 B channels and 1 D channel.
    3. It offers 30 B channels and 1 D channel.
    4. It offers 1 B channel and 2 D channels.
  6. In the DoD reference model, which layer conforms to the OSI transport layer?
    1. Process/Application Layer
    2. Host-to-Host Layer
    3. Internet Layer
    4. Network Access Layer
  7. What is the Network Layer of the OSI reference model primarily responsible for?
    1. Internetwork packet routing
    2. LAN bridging
    3. SMTP Gateway services
    4. Signal regeneration and repeating
  8. Which IEEE protocol defines wireless transmission in the 5 GHz band with data rates up to 54 Mbps?
    1. IEEE 802.11a
    2. IEEE 802.11b
    3. IEEE 802.11g
    4. IEEE 802.15
  9. Which category of UTP wiring is rated for 100BaseT Ethernet networks?
    1. Category 1
    2. Category 2
    3. Category 3
    4. Category 4
    5. Category 5
  10. Which choice below is the earliest and the most commonly found Interior Gateway Protocol?
    1. RIP
    2. OSPF
    3. IGRP
    4. EAP
  11. The data transmission method in which data is sent continuously and doesn't use either an internal clocking source or start/stop bits for timing is known as:
    1. Asynchronous
    2. Synchronous
    3. Isochronous
    4. Pleisiochronous
  12. Which level of RAID is commonly referred to as “disk mirroring”?
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 3
    4. RAID 5
  13. Which network attack below would NOT be considered a Denial of Service attack?
    1. Ping of Death
    2. SMURF
    3. Brute Force
    4. TCP SYN
  14. Which choice below is NOT an element of IPSec?
    1. Authentication Header
    2. Layer Two Tunneling Protocol
    3. Security Association
    4. Encapsulating Security Payload
  15. Which statement below is NOT true about the difference between cut-through and store-and-forward switching?
    1. A store-and-forward switch reads the whole packet and checks its validity before sending it to the next destination.
    2. Both methods operate at layer two of the OSI reference model.
    3. A cut-through switch reads only the header on the incoming data packet.
    4. A cut-through switch introduces more latency than a store-and-forward switch.
  16. Which statement is NOT true about the SOCKS protocol?
    1. It is sometimes referred to as an application-level proxy.
    2. It uses an ESP for authentication and encryption.
    3. It operates in the transport layer of the OSI model.
    4. Network applications need to be SOCKS-ified to operate.
  17. Which choice below does NOT relate to analog dial-up hacking?
    1. War Dialing
    2. War Walking
    3. Demon Dialing
    4. ToneLoc
  18. Which choice below is NOT a way to get Windows NT passwords?
    1. Obtain the backup SAM from the repair directory.
    2. Boot the NT server with a floppy containing an alternate operating system.
    3. Obtain root access to the /etc/passwd file.
    4. Use pwdump2 to dump the password hashes directly from the registry.
  19. A “back door” into a network refers to what?
    1. Socially engineering passwords from a subject
    2. Mechanisms created by hackers to gain network access at a later time
    3. Undocumented instructions used by programmers to debug applications
    4. Monitoring programs implemented on dummy applications to lure intruders
  20. Which protocol below does NOT pertain to e-mail?
    1. SMTP
    2. POP
    3. CHAP
    4. IMAP
  21. The IP address, 178.22.90.1, is considered to be in which class of address?
    1. Class A
    2. Class B
    3. Class C
    4. Class D
  22. What type of firewall architecture employs two network cards and a single screening router?
    1. A screened-host firewall
    2. A dual-homed host firewall
    3. A screened-subnet firewall
    4. An application-level proxy server
  23. What is one of the most common drawbacks to using a dual-homed host firewall?
    1. The examination of the packet at the Network layer introduces latency.
    2. The examination of the packet at the Application layer introduces latency.
    3. The ACLs must be manually maintained on the host.
    4. Internal routing may accidentally become enabled.
  24. Which firewall type below uses a dynamic state table to inspect the content of packets?
    1. A packet-filtering firewall
    2. An application-level firewall
    3. A circuit-level firewall
    4. A stateful-inspection firewall
  25. Which attack type below does NOT exploit TCP vulnerabilities?
    1. Sequence Number attack
    2. SYN attack
    3. Ping of Death
    4. land.c attack
  26. Which utility below can create a server-spoofing attack?
    1. DNS poisoning
    2. C2MYAZZ
    3. Snort
    4. BO2K
  27. Which LAN topology below is MOST vulnerable to a single point of failure?
    1. Ethernet Bus
    2. Physical Star
    3. FDDI
    4. Logical Ring
  28. Which choice below does NOT accurately describe the difference between multi-mode and single-mode fiber optic cabling?
    1. Multi-mode fiber propagates light waves through many paths, single-mode fiber propagates a single light ray only.
    2. Multi-mode fiber has a longer allowable maximum transmission distance than single-mode fiber.
    3. Single-mode fiber has a longer allowable maximum transmission distance than multi-mode fiber.
    4. Both types have a longer allowable maximum transmission distance than UTP Cat 5.
  29. Which statement below is correct regarding VLANs?
    1. A VLAN restricts flooding to only those ports included in the VLAN.
    2. A VLAN is a network segmented physically, not logically.
    3. A VLAN is less secure when implemented in conjunction with private port switching.
    4. A “closed” VLAN configuration is the least secure VLAN configuration.
  30. Which choice below denotes a packet-switched connectionless wide area network (WAN) technology?
    1. X.25
    2. Frame Relay
    3. SMDS
    4. ATM
  31. Which statement below is accurate about the difference between Ethernet II and 802.3 frame formats?
    1. 802.3 uses a “Length” field, whereas Ethernet II uses a “Type” field.
    2. 802.3 uses a “Type” field, whereas Ethernet II uses a “Length” field.
    3. Ethernet II uses a 4-byte FCS field, whereas 802.3 uses an 8-byte Preamble field.
    4. Ethernet II uses an 8-byte Preamble field, whereas 802.3 uses a 4-byte FCS field.
  32. Which standard below does NOT specify fiber optic cabling as its physical media?
    1. 100BaseFX
    2. 1000BaseCX
    3. 1000BaseLX
    4. 1000BaseSX
  33. Which type of routing below commonly broadcasts its routing table information to all other routers every minute?
    1. Static Routing
    2. Distance Vector Routing
    3. Link State Routing
    4. Dynamic Control Protocol Routing
  34. Which protocol is used to resolve a known IP address to an unknown MAC address?
    1. ARP
    2. RARP
    3. ICMP
    4. TFTP
  35. Which statement accurately describes the difference between 802.11b WLAN ad hoc and infrastructure modes?
    1. The ad hoc mode requires an Access Point to communicate to the wired network.
    2. Wireless nodes can communicate peer-to-peer in the infrastructure mode.
    3. Wireless nodes can communicate peer-to-peer in the ad hoc mode.
    4. Access points are rarely used in 802.11b WLANs.
  36. Which type of cabling below is the most common type for recent Ethernet installations?
    1. ThickNet
    2. ThinNet
    3. Twinax
    4. Twisted Pair
  37. Which choice below most accurately describes SSL?
    1. It's a widely used standard of securing e-mail at the Application level.
    2. It gives a user remote access to a command prompt across a secure, encrypted session.
    3. It uses two protocols, the Authentication Header and the Encapsulating Security Payload.
    4. It allows an application to have authenticated, encrypted communications across a network.
  38. Which backup method listed below will probably require the backup operator to use the most number of tapes for a complete system restoration, if a different tape is used every night in a five-day rotation?
    1. Full Backup Method
    2. Differential Backup Method
    3. Incremental Backup Method
    4. Ad Hoc Backup Method
  39. Which choice below is NOT an element of a fiber optic cable?
    1. Core
    2. BNC
    3. Jacket
    4. Cladding
  40. Given an IP address of 172.16.0.0, which subnet mask below would allow us to divide the network into the maximum number of subnets with at least 600 host addresses per subnet?
    1. 255.255.224.0
    2. 255.255.240.0
    3. 255.255.248.0
    4. 255.255.252.0
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